We assume that Indian Contract act 1872 was derived from English Law (England), but we should not forget that before England Law or I can say that before the existence of English law, there was society which was following Law. The society was governed through laws, which we can see in medieval times that, when there was no existence of law or contract law the remedy was given to the people. Either by Kings or Tribal Chief, we should think about this if there was no existence of law than how the remedy/punishment/fine was given? And if there was no existence of law the crime must be committed at the peak. So I can say that there was rules/Laws which was followed by the people before enforcement or evolution of English Law.





